Posted by weirdninja at host217-44-183-125.range217-44.btcentralplus.com on August 22, 2003 at 15:16:27:
if dogmatic law is THE WORD of god
how can john stuart mill be right when he writes "anything which is not held open to full dicussion and debate becomes dogmatic" (without meaning)
or is he basing his arguement on the word of God being without meaning BECAUSE it was not discussed openly and debated AT ALL for many centuries
thoughts???
(and for the cocksuckers who were about to slam me for being irrelevant...go back and watch dogma again)